Many Muslims believe that Zam Zam water is blessed water. However, there is no mention in the Quran of Zam Zam water. The Quran does talk about rainwater and honey, however. The story of Zam Zam is linked with the story of prophet Abraham’s wife, Hagar, his son, prophet Ishmael, Safa and Marwa. However, there is absolutely no mention of Hagar or the Hagar-Ishmael story in the entire Quran. As a matter of fact, there is not even a single mention of the word “Zamzam” in the Quran. Safa and Marwa are not even described as “mountains” in the Quran but rather as “symbols”. Pagan Arabs used to circumambulate (tawaaf) around Safa and Marwa before Islam was revealed to them. The Quran merely allowed this practice of “tawaaf” around Safa and Marwa to continue as optional.
Indeed, as-Safa and al-Marwah are among the symbols of Allah. So whoever makes Hajj to the House or performs ‘umrah – there is no blame upon him for walking between them. … (2:158)
The statement “there is no blame / sin upon him for walking between them (Safa and Marwa)” clearly indicates that newly converted Muslims (ex Pagans) were allowed to continue the practice of walking between Safa and Marwa as they used to when they were pagans. The Quran does not require this practice.
The Healing Power of Honey
According to verses 16:68-69, honey has the power to heal.
And your Lord inspired to the bee, “Take for yourself among the mountains, houses, and among the trees and [in] that which they construct. Then eat from all the fruits and follow the ways of your Lord laid down [for you].” There emerges from their bellies a drink, varying in colors, in which there is healing for people. Indeed in that is a sign for a people who give thought. (16:68-69)
The Reviving Properties of Rainwater
According to verse 50:9, rainwater is referred to as “blessed” water” and has revitalizing properties.
Many Muslims believe that Prophet Muhammad was illiterate and could not read and write. However, there is strong evidence in the Quran that indicates that he was literate. Many people take verse 7:157 as proof that Muhammad was illiterate because they think the word “ummi” means illiterate.
Those who follow the Messenger, the illiterate (ummi) prophet … (7:157 part)
Definition of “Ummi”
However, according to Edward Lanes Lexicon, the classical Arabic term ‘Ummi’ refers to a gentile or someone who is not familiar with the Law of Prophet Moses. It is not necessarily someone who is illiterate.
Definition of “Gentile”
The term Gentile is of Latin origin and from the word ‘Gentilis’ which means to be associated with or being part of a particular tribe or clan. It refers to non-Israelite tribes and is used to refer to non-Jews.
Today, the primary meaning of gentile still remains as someone who is a “non-Jew” and is not a reader of the Torah or has any Jewish origins.
Non-Jews can be “ummi”
One does not have to be a non-Jew in order to not know the Law of Moses. In verse 2:78 we see proof that even some Jews were “ummi” as they did not know their own scripture.
So if they argue with you, say, “I have submitted myself to Allah [in Islam], and [so have] those who follow me.” And say to those who were given the Scripture and [to] the “ummi”, “Have you submitted yourselves?” And if they submit [in Islam], they are rightly guided; but if they turn away – then upon you is only the [duty of] notification. And Allah is Seeing of [His] servants. (3:20)
In the verse above, God is commanding Prophet Muhammad (pbuh) to proclaim the message to the Jews and Christians (recipients) of the previous scriptures and the ‘Ummis’. If one renders ‘Ummi’ here as ‘Illiterate’ then the verse becomes nonsensical as it appears God is asking the Prophet to proclaim the message to those of the previous scriptures and the illiterates. This rendering would unnecessarily exclude those who could read and write but would have not received the scripture.
In another example, if we try to assume “ummi” to mean “illiterate”, then the following verse would erroneously imply that God raised a messenger only amongst people who could not read and write. That obviously makes no sense at all.
It is He who has sent among the “ummi” a Messenger from themselves reciting to them His verses and purifying them and teaching them the Book and wisdom – although they were before in clear error – (62:2)
In another example, if we try to assume “ummi” to mean “illiterate”, then the following verse would mean that some from the People of the Book said that they had no accountability to illiterate people. Once again, that makes no sense at all.
And among the People of the Scripture is he who, if you entrust him with a great amount [of wealth], he will return it to you. And among them is he who, if you entrust him with a [single] silver coin, he will not return it to you unless you are constantly standing over him [demanding it]. That is because they say, “There is no blame / duty / accountability upon us concerning the ‘ummi’.” And they speak untruth about Allah while they know [it]. (3:75)
Muhammad was an “ummi” (didn’t know / read any prior scripture)
If we take the word “ummi” to mean anyone who didn’t know about or read scriptures prior to the Quran, then verses 42:52 and 29:48 prove that Muhammad was one of them.
And thus We have revealed to you an inspiration of Our command. You did not know what is the Book (prior scripture) or [what is] faith, but We have made it a light by which We guide whom We will of Our servants. And indeed, [O Muhammad], you guide to a straight path – (42:52)
And you did not recite before it any scripture, nor did you inscribe one with your right hand. Otherwise, the falsifiers would have had [cause for] doubt. (29:48)
Note:
The reference to not being able to ‘write it with your right hand’ is not a reference to the Quran. This is clearly a reference to the previous scriptures which is deduced by context. The verse informs the reader that the Prophet Muhammad (pbuh) was neither a reader nor writer of the previous scriptures and hence had no knowledge of its contents, begging the question, so where did he get his knowledge from? This verse also suggests that, contrary to popular belief, the prophet had the ability to both read and write.
Ability to read and write
If the Prophet could not read or write, why would a statement informing people that he did not read or write anything of the ‘previous scriptures’ be stated? Similarly, in English, if one makes a statement that X did not read book Y specifically, its shows the ability of X to actually read, the only exception being in this context, of course, that book Y was not read by X.
No expectation of prophethood
In verse 28:86, we see that the prophet didn’t even expect that he’d become a prophet.
And you were not expecting that the Book would be conveyed to you, but [it is] a mercy from your Lord. So do not be an assistant to the disbelievers. (28:86)
Additional proof Muhammad was not illiterate
In verse 25:5, we see that disbelievers accused the Prophet of writing down the scripture with his own hands.
And they say, “Legends of the former peoples which he has written down (Arabic: ik’tatabaha), and they are dictated to him morning and afternoon.” (25:5)
The Arabic gives us the root of the term ‘iktatabaha’ as K-T-B.
Kaf-Ta-Ba = he wrote it, prescribed, appointed, ordained, to dictate it, judged, decreed, drew, brought together, collected, conjoined, a thing in which or on which one writes, record, registered writ.
iktataba is the perfect active verbal form of kataba
Therefore the verb means that either the Prophet had the Quran written down or he himself wrote it down.
Source: Edward Lanes Lexicon
If the intention was to imply that he ’caused others to write it’ or ‘had it dictated’, it would arguably have been better to use the word ‘aktaba’.
Source: Edward Lanes Lexicon
However, since the word used was ‘iktataba’, then it is most likely referring to the fact that the Prophet himself wrote the Quran which means he was not illiterate.
Sources that suggest Muhammad was illiterate
Muslims seem to believe that Muhammad was illiterate based on some hadith. Ironically, the hadith themselves also indicate that Muhammad could write as proven in the following “sahih” hadith.
Narrated Yazid ibn Abdullah:… We then asked: Who wrote this document for you? He replied: The Messenger of Allah (ﷺ).
Grade : Sahih in chain (Al-Albani)
Reference : Sunan Abi Dawud 2999
In-book reference : Book 20, Hadith 72
English translation : Book 19, Hadith 2993
https://sunnah.com/abudawud/20/72
Do you have to pronounce God’s name before eating anything?
Most Muslims believe that you must pronounce God’s name only before slaughtering animals to make the meat halal. However, according to verse 6:118, you must pronounce God’s name before eating any food.
So eat of that upon which the name of Allah has been mentioned, if you are believers in His verses. (6:118)
This verse does not restrict the pronouncing of God’s name on animals so as to produce halal meat. As a matter of fact, it doesn’t even say you’re supposed to pronounce God’s name before slaughtering any animal. This verse indicates that one should mention God’s name before eating.
Reason for pronouncing God’s name before eating
The spiritual reason for pronouncing God’s name on our food before eating it is to constantly remember and be appreciative of God’s blessings on us. This is explained in verse 16:114.
Then eat of what Allah has provided for you [which is] lawful and good. And be grateful for the favor of Allah, if it is [indeed] Him that you worship. (16:114)
This act of showing appreciation to God by reciting God’s name before we eat would not belong to us if only people who slaughtered animals had to recite God’s name.
Similar statement in the Torah / Bible
In the Torah / Bible, we find a similar commandment in Deuteronomy 8:10.
… “When you have eaten and are satisfied, bless (praise) the Lord your God for the good land He has given you.” … (Deuteronomy 8:10)
In this verse, however, it says to bless “after the meal” and not before the meal.
Conclusion
You must pronounce God’s name before eating anything, not just meat. In Christianity, this is called “saying grace” which is a statement of appreciation of the food one is about to eat.
What really is “halal” food?
Most Muslims believe that meat can only be eaten if it is “halal” meat and that “halal” meat is only meat from an animal that had God’s name pronounced on it just before slaughtering it. However, according to the Quran, the recitation of God’s name, e.g. bismillah, is required before eating all food and is not required before slaughtering an animal.
Popular definition of “halal” meat
Most Muslims believe that “halal” meat is meat that had God’s name pronounced on it just before slaughtering it. Some Muslims will add additional requirements such as a particular way the animal is slaughtered to minimize suffering and expedite death. These requirements are nowhere to be found in the Quran. Jews have a similar understanding with the concept of “kosher” meat.
Quranic definition of “halal” food
The Quran makes it clear that all food is halal except for specific ones, e.g. pig, alcohol, running blood, and except for ones in certain conditions, e.g. animals gored to death or rotting carcasses.
Do not prohibit the lawful and vice versa
By changing the meaning of verse 6:118 to prohibit eating meat that isn’t considered “halal” meat, one would find himself in violation of verse 16:116.
And do not say about what your tongues assert of untruth, “This is lawful and this is unlawful,” to invent falsehood about Allah . Indeed, those who invent falsehood about Allah will not succeed. (16:116)
As you can imagine, prohibiting something that God never prohibited can have serious consequences. In verses 6:148-150, we see that some people prohibited something that God never prohibited. God told Muhammad not to agree with them.
Say, [O Muhammad], “Bring forward your witnesses who will testify that Allah has prohibited this.” And if they testify, do not testify with them. And do not follow the desires of those who deny Our verses and those who do not believe in the Hereafter, while they equate [others] with their Lord. (6:150)
Prohibited food and meat
Verses 2:173, 5:3, 6:145, and 16:115 make it clear what food is halal (lawful) and haram (prohibited).
Prohibited to you are dead animals, blood, the flesh of swine, and that which has been dedicated to other than Allah, and [those animals] killed by strangling or by a violent blow or by a head-long fall or by the goring of horns, and those from which a wild animal has eaten, except what you [are able to] slaughter [before its death], and those which are sacrificed on stone altars, and [prohibited is] that you seek decision through divining arrows. … (5:3)
The food of the People of the Book
According to verse 5:5, we see that God made it lawful for Muslims to eat the food fo the People of the Book (Jews and Christians).
This day [all] good foods have been made lawful, and the food of those who were given the Scripture is lawful for you and your food is lawful for them. … (5:5)
In general, we know that non-Muslims do not pronounce the name of God before killing an animal. Nevertheless, according to verse 5:5, God has made their food lawful for Muslims. This further proves that God does not require Muslims to pronounce God’s name before slaughtering an animal. However, if we eat food, e.g. steak, that originated from a Christian slaughterhouse, which God has allowed us to do, then we would still have to pronounce God’s name on it before eating it to comply with the requirement in verse 6:118.
Conclusion
Halal meat and halal food is any food that isn’t prohibited in 2:173, 5:3, 6:145 and 16:115
Do you have to pronounce God’s name before slaughtering an animal?
Some Muslim scholars argue that since verse 22:36 indicates that God’s name should be uttered before slaughtering animals, then not doing so would render the meat non-halal and forbidden for consumption. On first impression, their claim seems valid. However, upon closer inspection and considering the context of neighboring verses, we discover the correct meaning of the verse as explained below.
And the camels and cattle We have appointed for you as among the symbols of Allah; for you therein is good. So mention the name of Allah upon them when lined up [for sacrifice]; and when they are [lifeless] on their sides, then eat from them and feed the needy and the beggar. Thus have We subjected them to you that you may be grateful. (22:36)
There are a few important points to note:
This verse speaks about the ritual of animal offering / sacrifice during the Hajj. The surah containing this verse is called “Hajj” and if we start reading from verse 27, we see the subject of these related verses has to do with the hajj and hajj rituals. This means that the rules given in these verses apply only during the hajj.
While the animals are lined up during the Hajj, those observing the Hajj should commemorate the name of God on these animals. The people who are pronouncing God’s name are the people who are observing the Hajj, not the people who are slaughtering the animals. The utterance of God’s name is not associated with the actual slaughtering.
To further prove that the uttering of God’s name on these animals during Hajj has nothing to do with make makes meat halal, we note that God’s command to utter His name while the animals are lined up is no different from God’s command to those observing Hajj to constantly utter and commemorate God’s name throughout the Hajj. This is indicated in the following verses
And proclaim to the people the Hajj [pilgrimage]; they will come to you on foot and on every lean camel; they will come from every distant pass – That they may witness benefits for themselves and mention the name of God on known days over what He has provided for them of [sacrificial] animals. So eat of them and feed the despondent poor. (22:27-28)
And remember God during [specific] numbered days. (2:203)
But when you depart from ‘Arafat, remember God at al- Mash’ar al-Haram. (2:198)
And when you have completed your rites, remember God … (2:200)
The verses above indicate that God should be commemorated during every step of the Hajj. Commemorating and pronouncing God’s name on the animals while they are lined up for sacrifice is just a continuation of the rule to constantly commemorate God’s name throughout the entire Hajj from beginning to end.
Conclusion
You do not have to pronounce God’s name before slaughtering an animal.
Is slaughtering the only approved way of killing an animal for food?
Some Islamic scholars claim that slaughtering is the only Islamic way of killing animals for food. However, this is nowhere stated in the Quran. Some people justify their claim by saying that blood is prohibited for consumption and that slaughtering is the only way to remove all blood from a dead animal. Obviously, that argument is false and can easily be verified. If you buy a cut of meat from any “halal butcher”, then take it home and place it under running water, you will always see blood come out, which was presumably slaughtered according to the Islamic way.
Blood
When an animal is slaughtered, the main arteries in the neck are severed. This drains from the body all the blood that was in the main arteries. However, the body of all animals contains a vast number of tiny veins and millions of capillaries. Capillaries are the smallest of the body’s blood vessels. Some of them are only one cell thick. The blood in the very small blood veins and capillaries will not all be drained from the flesh of the slaughtered animal. Much of the blood will remain trapped in the flesh regardless of the method of killing.
Running Blood
Verse 5:3 states that eating “blood” is prohibited. If this means that even a speck of blood was prohibited for consumption, then all meat would be prohibited, which can’t be true since verse 22:36 indicates that, during the hajj, animals are to be sacrificed to be eaten. Fortunately, verse 6:145 clarifies that the type of blood that is prohibited is “running blood”.
Say, “I do not find within that which was revealed to me [anything] forbidden to one who would eat it unless it be a dead animal or blood spilled (running blood) out or the flesh of swine – for indeed, it is impure – or it be [that slaughtered in] disobedience, dedicated to other than Allah. … (6:145)
God knows that there will always be blood trapped in all flesh and that we will never be able to flush it all out. For that reason, God made it clear in 6:145 that the prohibition is against “running blood”.
Any meat we buy from any “halal butcher” will not contain running blood but will always contain trapped blood. Similarly, the meat we buy from any supermarket will not contain running blood but will contain trapped flood.
Food of the People of the Book
If God decreed slaughtering to be the only lawful way to kill an animal, then why did God allow us in verse 5:5 to eat the food of the People of the Book as long as we pronounce God’s name on it before eating it when we have no idea how it was killed?
Animals killed by trained birds of prey and dogs
Similarly, if God decreed slaughtering to be the only lawful way to kill an animal, then why did God allow us in verse 5:5 to eat animals killed by trained birds of prey and dogs? These animals are already dead when we take them from the mouth of the birds and dogs.
Fish
Similarly, if animals had to be slaughtered, how can we eat fish since fish are not slaughtered? Like the meat of cattle, fish contain traces of blood when we buy them. We can remove some of the blood by running the fish under running water but not all.
Conclusion
God never decreed that slaughtering is the only lawful way to kill an animal.
Slaughtering does not remove all blood from a dead animal
The prohibition from God is against “running blood” and not trapped blood which is impossible to flush out completely.
Some Muslims believe that you are not allowed to write a will before dying and that inheritance is strictly based on the percentages specified in the Quran. However, not only is writing a will allowed, it’s even a prescribed duty for all Muslims. This is proven in verse 2:180.
Prescribed for you when death approaches [any] one of you if he leaves wealth [is that he should make] a bequest (will) for the parents and near relatives according to what is acceptable / reasonable / fair – a duty upon the righteous. (2:180)
In other words, if you do not make a will, then you violate verse 2:106.
According to verse 5:106, when you make a will, you need two witnesses.
O you who have believed, testimony [should be taken] among you when death approaches one of you at the time of bequest – [that of] two just men from among you or two others from outside if you are traveling through the land and the disaster of death should strike you. Detain them after the prayer and let them both swear by Allah if you doubt [their testimony, saying], “We will not exchange our oath for a price, even if he should be a near relative, and we will not withhold the testimony of Allah . Indeed, we would then be of the sinful.” (5:106)
According to verse 4:7, one must leave a will for parents and near relatives.
For men is a share of what the parents and close relatives leave, and for women is a share of what the parents and close relatives leave, be it little or much – an obligatory share. (4:7)
Some Muslims may argue that Quran chapter 4 (surah Nisaa) abrogates or replaces the requirement to make and follow a will in verse 2:180. However, upon careful analysis, it becomes clear that the inheritance verses in Surah Nisaa only apply after any debts have been paid and the will has been executed. Of course, if no will exists, the specific inheritance percentages specified in Surah Nisaa would apply.
… مِن بَعْدِ وَصِيَّةٍ يُوصِي بِهَا أَوْ دَيْنٍ …
(the distribution stipulated) … after (Arabic: ba’di) any will (Arabic: wasiyyatin) which he has made or any debts … (4:11)
(the distribution stipulated) … after (Arabic: ba’di) any will (Arabic: wasiyyatin) which was made or any debts … (4:12)
Obviously, if the distribution stipulations in chapter 4 were only to be followed, then there would be no point in God requiring everyone to make a will (2:180).
Furthermore, according to verse 2:181, no one has the authority to prevent someone from making a will or to change an existing will.
Then whoever alters the bequest (will) after he has heard it – the sin is only upon those who have altered it. Indeed, God is Hearing and Knowing. (2:181)
However, according to 2:182, if one feels any wrongdoing on the part of the person making the will (testator), then they are allowed to reconcile / correct the issue with the testator.
But if one fears from the bequeather [some] error or sin and corrects that which is between them, there is no sin upon him. Indeed, God is Forgiving and Merciful. (2:182)
Some Muslims get a headache when trying to understand verses 4:11-12 to determine shares of inheritance. If Muslims just followed the Quranic requirement to create a will, then there would be no need to feel guilty or confused when trying to understand verses 4:11-12. Nevertheless, one must keep in mind that a will (wasiyya) should be made with fairness / reasonableness (bil-ma’rufin) in mind. It should not intend to hurt or compromise (ghayra mudarrin – 4:12) other beneficiaries, e.g. by not giving a fair portion to one’s closest relatives.
In the end, only God knows which relatives such as parents or children are nearer to one in benefit.
Your parents or your children – you know not which of them are nearest to you in benefit. (4:11)
Obviously, the benefit of God allowing people to create a will is so that people have the flexibility to adjust shares taking into account certain circumstances that may exist, e.g. if a sole parent has two children and one child is filthy rich and the other is poor, the parent has the authority to give more to the poor child since that child, obviously, would need the money more than the rich kid.
If a will doesn’t exist or if a will leaves a remainder to be divided, then one must follow the distribution stipulations in 4:11-12. I have made a flowchart to help with this matter. It can be found at
What happens when a will doesn’t exist and Quranic distribution shares don’t add up to 100%?
This is a common question asked when people try to divide an inheritance when there is no will. For example, if the deceased has no legal heirs / relatives except for one sister, then the Quran states that the sister gets ½ of the inheritance. So what must be done with the remaining half?
First of all, you should never be in this situation to begin with because the Quran requires that you create a will (2:180) and nowhere in the Quran does it limit what percentage of your wealth can be specified in the will. So, if people just follow the Quran’s mandates, they can make a will accounting for 100% of their wealth and there would be no problems. Of course, debts must be paid first.
Secondly, if for some reason there is no will, which unfortunately seems to happen very often, then in the event the Quranic inheritance distribution shares don’t add up to 100%, then the remainder logically needs to be divided somehow. The Quran does not specify what to do with the remainder. This may be so as to offer flexibility in dividing the remainder to whoever deserves it based on each family’s situation. For example, if the only legal heirs are two sisters and there is no will, then the Quran indicates that the sisters share 2/3 of the inheritance, i.e. each gets 1/3. The remaining 1/3 can be allocated based on the appointed executor(s) judgment keeping in mind verse 2:180 which requires allocation to be fair and appropriate (bil-ma’rufin) and verse 4:12 which requires that allocation not be done with the intention of hurting anyone (ghayra mudarrin). Following are examples of ways the remaining 1/3 can be divided:
if one sister is filthy rich and the other is poor, then logically the poor sister would be more in need of the extra inheritance and therefore may deserve some or all of the remaining 1/3
if there are other relatives or orphans or needy people present during the time of the inheritance distribution, then according to verse 4:8, they should and could get the remaining 1/3
if both sisters are equal financially and there are no other relatives, orphans or needy people present, then the two sisters could divide the remaining 1/3 equally
Obviously, the best person to decide how their inheritance should be distributed would be the person who dies. For that reason, it makes sense that God would require everyone to make a will. Inheritance executors, e.g. probate court judges, probably don’t know how to best distribute any remaining inheritance and they probably don’t want to make decisions regarding someone else’s wealth. Again, that is why it is imperative that everyone make a will, even if that will closely matches the Quranic inheritance distribution stipulations with slight modifications to add up to 100%.
The example above is where the Quranic distribution percentage doesn’t add up to 100%. There’s also the possibility where the percentages add up to over 100%. Consider the following example where a man dies and is survived by his wife, 3 daughters and both parents.
Relative
Share Fraction
Share Percentage
Wife
1/8
12.5%
3 Daughters
2/3
66.7%
Mother
1/6
16.7%
Father
1/6
16.7%
Total
112.5%
In this example, the distribution exceeds 100% by 12.5%. Since that makes no sense, the only logical thing to do is reduce everyone’s percentage proportionally to reach 100%. Again, this would not be an issue if the deceased had just made a will with a 100% distribution. This is exactly what is done in the online Islamic inheritance calculator at
Many people insist that they must follow the Quranic percentages even though verse 2:180 mandates that everyone make a will and distribute their inheritance with fairness and reasonableness. Now, let’s consider a hypothetical situation whereby a man is married to someone for 20 years. His parents have passed away and he has no siblings. The man then divorces his wife and remarries. One day after his 2nd wedding, he dies without having written a will. In this particular case, the Quranic percentages would result in the following distribution:
Relative
Share Fraction
Share Percentage
Ex-wife of 20 years
0
0
Wife of 1 day
1
100%
As you can see, the ex-wife of 20 years gets nothing and the new wife of 1 day gets 100%. This clearly violates verse 2:180 because it’s clearly an unfair and unreasonable distribution considering the duration of the marriages. This is yet another example that shows why it is absolutely necessary, not to mention mandatory, to make a will. Without one, there’s a good chance that inheritance distributions would not be fair.
With a will, is there a limit to how much you can distribute?
Some Muslims will argue that the most you can allocate in a will is 1/3 (33%) of your total assets. This value is nowhere to be found in the Quran. It comes from the hadith. For proof as to why the hadith is invalid, please see my other book titled: Analysis of Validity of Prophet Muhammad’s Hadith – Is It Truly From Muhammad And Valid Islamic Law?
As stated in verse 22:78, God has not made His religion difficult or overly complex.
And strive for Allah with the striving due to Him. He has chosen you and has not placed upon you in the religion any difficulty. … (22:78 part)
It’s usually people who tend to make God’s religion difficult and overly complex. At the end of the day, according to verse 64:16 what matters most is that you make an effort to do the best you can.
So fear God [by keeping your duty to him] as best as you can / what you are able (Arabic: ma is’tata’tum) and listen and obey and spend [in the way of God]; it is better for your selves. And whoever is protected from the stinginess of his soul – it is those who will be the successful. (64:16 part)
Most Muslims believe that women are not required to pray Friday Dhuhr prayer in congregation. However, that understanding is based on the hadeeth which, as proven elsewhere in this book or in another one of my books, is an invalid source of Islamic law. The Quran in verse 62:9 makes it very clear that all believers must pray in congregation on Friday, not just men.
O you who have believed, when [the adhan] is called for the prayer on the day of Jumu’ah [Friday], then proceed to the remembrance of Allah and leave trade. That is better for you, if you only knew. (62:9)
Notice that the above verse does not single out men. Women, obviously, can be and are also believers.
In verse 3:43, God told Mary, mother of Jesus, to prostate and bow down with those who bow down. This confirms that congregational prayer was also directed to women.
O Mary, be devoutly obedient to your Lord and prostrate and bow with those who bow [in prayer].” (3:43)
In verse 3:193, we read that people were asking God for forgiveness and salvation. In verse 3:193, God responds by saying that men and like women and that He would not allow the deeds of anyone to be lost.
Their Lord has answered them: ‘I will not allow the deeds of any one of you to be lost, whether you are male or female, each is like the other.’ (3:195)
Additionally, God differentiated between men and women with regards to certain issues, e.g. men receive twice the inheritance as women and two women are required to be witnesses for each male witness. Therefore, if God wanted only men to pray the Friday prayer in congregation, He could have simply stated that it was only for men.
The above verse stresses the equality of male and female when it comes to worship, and signifies that the opportunities to worship should be equal for both men and women.
Many Muslims believe that their male boys must be circumcised. However, there is nothing in the Quran that requires circumcision. There really isn’t much else to say about this besides the fact that there just is simply no commandment in the Quran that boys / men must be circumcised. On the contrary, we do have proof in verses 95:4, 40:64 and 64:3 that God created humans in a perfect mold / form.
It is Allah who made for you the earth a place of settlement and the sky a ceiling and formed you and perfected your forms and provided you with good things. That is Allah, your Lord; then blessed is Allah, Lord of the worlds. (40:64)
And I (Satan) will mislead them, and I will arouse in them [sinful] desires, and I will command them so they will slit the ears of cattle, and I will command them so they will change the creation of God.” And whoever takes Satan as an ally instead of God has certainly sustained a clear loss. (4:119)
It is likely that Muslims believe in male circumcision because it’s mentioned in the Torah in Genesis 17:13.
He who is born in your house, and he who is bought with your money, must be circumcised; and My covenant shall be in your flesh for an everlasting covenant. (17:13) http://www.mechon-mamre.org/p/pt/pt0117.htm#13
Circumcision is also mentioned in the Christian Bible in Luke 2:21 which states that Jesus was circumcised 8 days after birth.
As such, it would seem that many Muslims are mixing some Jewish and Christian practices with Islam, despite the fact that Muhammad was instructed to follow the Quran and warn by way of the Quran only (6:19, 50:45). In addition, we have evidence from verse 5:48 that God gave the People of the Book each their own laws (Sharia) and an open way.
And We have revealed to you, [O Muhammad], the Book in truth, confirming that which preceded it of the Scripture and as a criterion over it. So judge between them by what Allah has revealed and do not follow their inclinations away from what has come to you of the truth. To each of you We prescribed a law and an open way. Had God willed, He would have made you one nation [united in religion], but [He intended] to test you in what He has given you; so race to [all that is] good. To God is your return all together, and He will [then] inform you concerning that over which you used to differ. (5:48)
As such, Muslims are not expected to follow the laws and ways of the Jews and Christians.
Our Lord, indeed we have heard a caller calling to faith, [saying], ‘Believe in your Lord,’ and we have believed. Our Lord, so forgive us our sins and remove from us our misdeeds and cause us to die with the righteous. Our Lord, and grant us what You promised us through Your messengers and do not disgrace us on the Day of Resurrection. Indeed, You do not fail in [Your] promise.” And their Lord responded to them, “Never will I allow to be lost the deeds of [any] doer among you, whether male or female; you are of one another. … (3:193-195 part)
In verse 51:56, we see that God created humans (men and women) and jinn for no other reason but to worship Him.
And I did not create the jinn and mankind except to worship Me. (51:56)
The average menstruation period lasts between 2 to 7 days per month. Therefore, a woman’s menstruation period could account for 25% of their adult life, which is most of their life. As worship is not mandatory before puberty (baligh), which, for women, is when menstruation begins, then menstruation accounts for up to 25% of a woman’s life during which worship is actually mandatory. If worship during menstruation were truly forbidden, that would be at odds with verse 51:56. Logically, it would make no sense for God to create women with the sole purpose of having them worship Him while also prohibiting them from worshipping Him for up to 25% of their life.
The Quran is clear as to what restrictions exist for each act of worship.
Prayer restrictions
According to verse 5:6, the restriction is that you may not pray until you have performed ablution. Additionally, if you are ill or on a journey or have relieved yourself or have been in physical contact with the opposite gender, and if you can’t find water, then you can perform dry ablution (tayammum).
O you who have believed, when you rise to [perform] prayer, wash your faces and your forearms to the elbows and wipe over your heads and wash your feet to the ankles. And if you are in a state of janabah, then purify yourselves. But if you are ill or on a journey or one of you comes from the place of relieving himself or you have contacted women and do not find water, then seek clean earth and wipe over your faces and hands with it. … (5:6 part)
In verse 4:43, we see additional prayer restrictions. Here, you are not allowed to pray while your mind is befogged (unable to focus, distracted, angry, etc) and that you must know what you are saying.
O you who have believed, do not approach prayer with a mind befogged (Arabic: sukara) until you know what you are saying … (4:43)
Notice the many conditions God has specified surrounding praying in both of these verses. These would be suitable places for God to mention the restriction for menstruating women if God really didn’t want women to pray while menstruating. There is no mention anywhere in the Quran that prohibits women from praying while menstruating.
Fasting restrictions
According to verse 2:185, during the fasting month of Ramadan, if you are ill or on a journey, then you can not fast and make up for it after Ramadan by fasting for an equal number of days lost.
The month of Ramadan [is that] in which was revealed the Qur’an, a guidance for the people and clear proofs of guidance and criterion. So whoever sights [the new moon of] the month, let him fast it; and whoever is ill or on a journey – then an equal number of other days. … (2:185 part)
Again, if God really wanted to restrict women from fasting during menstruation, He probably would have mentioned it in this verse. On the contrary, there is no mention anywhere in the Quran that specifically prohibits women from fasting while menstruating.
Hajj restrictions
Similarly, God has made it clear what the restrictions are regarding Hajj.
Verses 5:1-2, 5:95: No hunting, killing animals
Verse 2:217: No fighting / war
Verse 2:197: No sex
Verse 2:196: No cutting your hair
There is no restriction for menstruating women.
Similarly, there is no restriction for menstruating women from touching and reading the Quran and entering a mosque.
Menstruation vs illness
The Arabic word for menstruation (mahid) is known to the Quran and is used in two different verses (2:222, 65:4). However, this term is not mentioned in verse 2:185. The Arabic word for ‘illness’ is ‘marid’.
Some may argue that menstruation is an illness. Let’s examine this further. In verse 2:222, the Quran describes ‘menstruation’ as an ‘adha’.
… But there is no blame upon you, if you are troubled (adha) by rain or are ill (marda) … (4:102)
Therefore, ‘adha’ can be considered a condition that can cause annoyance, trouble, is disagreeable or hurt. Based on the verses above, ‘adha’ does not necessarily mean an illness, unless it causes hurt or harm.
Menstruation as an impurity
Some may argue that menstruation is an impurity and therefore you can’t fast. Whether it is impure or not is irrelevant when it comes to fasting. Fasting is not broken by defecation or urination (a natural occurrence as is menstruation) so why would menstruation as an impurity prohibit fasting?
Menstruation and sexual intercourse
Sexual intimacy does break the fast but such acts are based on clear volition and the Quran specifically prohibits sexual intimacy during fasting. The only thing prohibited for menstruating women is sexual intercourse (2:222) and nothing else.
Spiritual vs biological impurity
As explained above, menstruating women are only prohibited from sexual intercourse and nothing else. They are not prohibited from performing any type of worship ritual during menstruation. This makes sense since God never considers women to be spiritually impure during menstruation. On the contrary, sexual intercourse during menstruation is prohibited because it is a temporary, periodic biological impurity that could cause harm (adha).
The Bible (Torah) on menstruation
In Leviticus 15:19-30, we see that the Bible describes menstruating women as spiritually impure so much so that if a menstruating woman touches something, that thing becomes impure and if someone else subsequently touches that thing, they too shall become impure. According to the Bible, menstruating women would be forbidden from entering a mosque or touching the Quran. Could it be that Muslim scholars have mixed Quranic law with Biblical law in order to come up with Islamic law with regards to menstruating women?
Conclusion
Women must fast and pray even when menstruating unless menstruation causes pain or harm similar to that of being sick. The only prohibition in the Quran during menstruation is sexual intercourse.
Many Muslims believe that they will reap some huge reward or all of their sins will be washed away if they perform lots of worship during one unknown night near the end of the month of Ramadan. However, there is no statement in the Quran that tells people to try and find Lailat Al-Qadr.
According to verses 97:1-5, we know that God revealed something in the Night of Decree (Laylatul-qadr).
Indeed, We sent it down (Arabic: Anzalnahu) during the Night of Decree. And what can make you know what is the Night of Decree? The Night of Decree is better than a thousand months. The angels and the Spirit descend therein by permission of their Lord for every matter. Peace it is until the emergence of dawn. (97:1-5)
The Arabic word “anzalnahu” means “we sent it down”. This most like means that the Quran was sent down. If we look at verse 44:2-4, we find that the same word (anzalnahu) was used to describe the Quran being sent down.
The month of Ramadhan [is that] in which was revealed the Qur’an, a guidance for the people and clear proofs of guidance and criterion. … (2:185 part)
And according to verse 17:106, we find that the Quran was not revealed all at once or only during the month of Ramadan but rather a little at a time throughout prophet Muhammad’s ministry.
And [it is] a Qur’an which We have separated [by intervals] that you might recite it to the people over a prolonged period. And We have sent it down progressively. (17:106)
Based on the facts about Laylatul-Qadr described above, we see that the Quran never tells people to seek the Night of Decree (Laylatul Qadr). The revelation of the Quran began on the Night of Decree (Laylatul Qadr) and the rest of the Quran was revealed throughout the remainder of Muhammad’s life.
Lastly, the purpose of fasting in the month of Ramadhan is to guard against evil and learn self-restraint (Arabic: tattaqun) as described in verse 2:183.
O you who have believed, decreed upon you is fasting as it was decreed upon those before you that you may learn self-restraint / guard against evil – (2:183)
Do we begin fasting at the time of fajr or some time afterwards?
Many Muslims believe that fasting begins when it’s time for fajr prayer. However, careful analysis would prove that fasting begins some time after when fajr prayer begins.
The Quran in verse 2:187 indicates that fasting begins when “the white thread of dawn appears to you distinct from its black thread.”
… And eat and drink until the white thread of dawn becomes distinct to you from its black thread. …(2:187)
In order to determine when fasting should begin, we need to understand a few concepts.
Fajr Prayer Period
Fajr is an Arabic word that means dawn. Therefore, the fajr prayer means the dawn prayer which means the fajr prayer time period is from the beginning of dawn until the end of dawn.
What is dawn?
By definition, dawn begins when the sun starts to lighten the sky and ends when the sunrise begins. Scientifically, there are 3 stages of dawn:
Astronomical Dawn Astronomical Dawn is when the geometric center of the Sun’s disk is 18 degrees below the horizon. At this point, twilight is so faint that it is generally indistinguishable from night, especially in areas with light pollution.
Nautical Dawn / First Light Nautical dawn is when the geometric center of the Sun’s disk reaches an angle of 12 degrees below the horizon. The sunlight reflected by the atmosphere is now generally sufficient to distinguish the sky from land or water in clear weather conditions. This is also called “first light” because it’s the first point of dawn when the sun’s light (not the sun itself) is noticeable to the human eye.
Civil Dawn Civil dawn is when the geometric center of the Sun’s disc is 6° below the horizon.
Sunrise
Sunrise is when the geometric center of the Sun’s disk is at the horizon.
Beginning of fajr prayer time period
Muslims usually take astronomical dawn to be the beginning of the fajr prayer time period even though the sky is still dark to the human eye and light is only visible in certain conditions and possibly using scientific equipment.
Beginning of fasting
Since verse 2:187 indicates that fasting begins at the point when sunlight first becomes visible to the human eye, then based on the stages of dawn described above, the beginning of fasting would be at the beginning of the nautical dawn stage, aka “first light”.
Conclusion
Since Muslims consider the fajr prayer to begin at astronomical dawn and since we have just proven that the beginning of fasting begins at nautical dawn (first light), then fasting begins some time after the fajr prayer. In order to determine when nautical dawn or first light occurs in your area, you can visit https://www.timeanddate.com/astronomy/dawn.html
Do we end fasting at the time of maghrib (sunset) or night (layl)?
Many Muslims believe that the time to break their fast in Ramadan is at Maghrib (sunset). However, the Quran makes it very clear that you must fast till night time (layl) which is as soon as there is no more sunlight in the sky, not when the sun is setting and it’s still bright outside. This is proven in verse 2:187.
…and eat and drink, until the white thread of dawn appears to you distinct from its black thread. Then complete the fast till the night (Arabic: layl)… (2:187)
At no place in the Quran is ‘layl’ (night) the same thing as sunset.
What is sunset?
The description of “sunset” is clearly defined when we look at the following verse:
حَتَّىٰ إِذَا بَلَغَ مَغْرِبَ الشَّمْسِ
Until, when he reached the setting of the sun (Arabic: Maghriba-l-shams) … (18:86)
The word ‘maghriba’ comes from its root word ‘Ghurub’ (G-R-B) which means to retire, to depart, to be hidden from view or to be absent. Used along with ‘shams’ (sun) it refers to sunset, or the west which is clearly the setting place of the sun.
Verse 2:187 does not instruct people to fast until the ‘ghurub’ of the ‘shams’ (setting of the sun). Rather, it informs people to fast till ‘layl’ (night).
In verse 20:130 and 50:39, we see another reference to “ghurub” which clearly indicate the setting of the sun, aka “sunset”.
So be patient, [O Muhammad], over what they say and exalt [ Allah ] with praise of your Lord before the rising of the sun and before its setting, (50:39)
As you can see, the term “ghurub” which means “sunset” is well known in the Quran. If God wanted people to end their fast at sunset, He could have just used the word “ghurub” but He didn’t. Instead, God wanted people to end their fast at night which is why He used the word “layl”.
Following are some dictionary definitions of “ghurub”.
OMAR, A M, Dictionary of the Holy Quran, Arabic Words – English Meanings, Noor Foundation – International Inc, First Edition May 24, 2003, Reprint used February 26 2010, Page 400
LANE. E.W, Edward Lanes Lexicon, Williams and Norgate 1863; Librairie du Liban Beirut-Lebanon 1968, Volume 3, Page 971
What is “layl” (night)
Layl (night) is when there is no more noticeable sunlight in the sky. In other words, it is when twilight has ended and the sky is dark.
In verse 91:1-4, we see that “layl” or night is when both the sun and its light can no longer be seen.
By the Sun and its brightness (splendour, brightness, brilliance – duha) and the moon when it follows it and the day (Arabic: nahar) when it displays it (sun’s glory) and the night (Arabic: layl) when it covers / conceals it. (18:86)
If the sun is below the horizon and hidden from view but sunlight is still seen in the sky, that’s still sunset (ghurub) and not layl (night).
In verse 10:067 we see proof that daytime (nahar) is contrasted with nighttime (layl) in that daytime is when you can see things / things are visible.
It is He who made for you the night to rest therein and the day, giving sight. (18:86)
Obviously, at sunset or maghrib time, you can still see things outside because there’s still plenty of sunlight in the sky. That’s because it isn’t nighttime (layl) yet.
Following are some verses that reference the word “layl” which clearly indicate it to mean nighttime and not sunset.
And We made between them and the towns which We had blessed, towns easy to be seen, and We made stages of journey between them easy, (saying): Travel in them safely both by night (Arabic: layliya) and day. (34:18)
Indeed, your Lord knows, [O Muhammad], that you stand [in prayer] almost two-thirds of the night or half of it or a third of it, and [so do] a group of those with you. … (73/20)
It would be hard to believe that the reference to the word “layl” in the above verses means sunset.
In verse 79:29, we see one more reference to “layl” which indicates that it is when there is darkness as opposed to brightness.
وَأَغْطَشَ لَيْلَهَا وَأَخْرَجَ ضُحَاهَا
And He darkened its night and extracted its brightness. (79:29)
When does layl (night) begin?
The Quran refers to certain periods of nighttime as being totally dark. For example, ‘al-layli muzliman’ (10:27) or ‘ghasaq al-layl’ (17:78). The Quran in verse 12:16 also refers to “night” as “isha” to describe the night prayer (salaat al-isha). However, the Quran doesn’t use any of these terms to describe the time at which to end fasting. Therefore, it would be reasonable to understand the beginning of night to be the end of sunset when there is no more light in the sky.
Twilight
The twilight phases in the morning are often called dawn, while the twilight phases in the evening are referred to as dusk. However, unlike the term twilight, which describes a time span, the terms dawn and dusk refer to moments during the transitions between day and night.
Civil dawn is the moment when the geometric center of the Sun is 6 degrees below the horizon in the morning. It is preceded by nautical twilight.
Similarly, civil dusk is the instant when the geometric center of the Sun is 6 degrees below the horizon in the evening. It marks the beginning of nautical twilight.
Following is an example of the different parts of a day (and night) for San Francisco on June 5, 2017.
Black is nighttime, light blue is daytime. The darker blue shadings represent the twilight phases during dawn (left) and dusk (right).
As you can see, sunset / dusk / ghurub begins at 8:28 PM. This is also the beginning of civil twilight and corresponds to the time when Muslims pray Maghrib. However, you’ll notice that when you step outside at Maghrib, there’s still plenty of sunlight in the sky. Obviously, this is not night (layl). Complete night (total darkness), in this example, begins at 10:21 PM. The beginning of night should, therefore, at least, be at the end of civil twilight which, in this example, is at 8:59 PM. According to Weather Underground (https://www.wunderground.com/), last light is at 8:59 PM. If you step outside at this time, you’ll notice that the sky is dark. Therefore, it is reasonable to take the beginning of “layl” (night) to be at the end of civil twilight.
You can also use the Golden Hour app. The screenshot of Golden Hour below shows last light (beginning of night) in Hayward, CA, USA on Dec 27, 2021 to be at 5:26 PM.
